Priscillian referred to it [Corpus Scriptorum Ecclesiasticorum Of the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost it is written: "And the three are One" in his On The Lapsed, On the Novatians, Tertullian wrote "which three are one" based on the verse in his Against Praxeas, chapter 25. Here is a useful timeline of references to this verse: " Sabellianism," and would have found it easier to combat the heresy by simply removing the troubling passage from their Bibles.īut during this same time, we find mention of 1 John 5:7, from about 200 AD through the 1500s. So they had no reason to remove 1 John 5:7 from their Bibles, since it supported what they taught.īut the Greek Eastern Orthodox religion was combating a heresy called The growing religion that became known as Roman Catholic, after many debates eventually agreed on the doctrine of the Trinity. Starting after the death of the apostles (about 100 AD) many people taught the lie that Jesus was not God the Son and Son of God, or that Jesus became God at His baptism, or the false doctrine that the Holy Spirit was not God or was not eternal. So why then is 1 John 5:7 in the King James Bible, but not in many of the existing Greek manuscripts? To understand the answer, we must look at the history of what happened shortly after the Bible was written.ĭuring the early growth of the Christian church, ministers (whether saved or not) wrote down doctrines that they said were Christian and Biblical. 1 John itself is not in a large number of extant Greek manuscripts.They had a vested interest in changing (or deleting) some texts. The "Majority" Greek text is also the main Greek text used by the Eastern Orthodox religion.In other words, what is commonly called the "Majority" Greek text is not a collation of the majority of manuscripts at all. Von Soden, did not collate more than 400 of the more than 5,000 Greek texts. The last person to try to find the differences between the majority of Greek manuscripts, Dr. The so-called "Majority" text was not really based on the majority of texts, but rather a relatively small number of manuscripts.It is true that there is a small number of Scriptures that are not the same between the King James Bible and the so-called "Majority" Greek text. In the King James Bible and was preserved by faithful Christians.īut the passage was removed from many Greek manuscripts,īecause of the problems it seemed to cause. John 5:7 is not in any Greek manuscript before the 1600s? If it is true, why is it in the King James Bible? From "Answers To Your Bible Version Questions"
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